Tuberculosis MCQs for AIPGMEE, MCCEE, JIPMER, FMGE

Want to make best use of you time?
Want to prepare anywhere? anytime?
Want to achieve the best result in shortest time?
Ace medical MCQs is an e book you can access on your smart phone and your tablet. It is a collection of MCQs in all medical subjects prepared by a group of experts in the field.

Tuberculosis (TB)

1. AntiTB drug that has bacteriociddal and sterilizing effect on tissue is:

A)     Rifampicin

B)      INH

C)      Ethambutol

D)     Pyrazinamide

2. Following type of pulmonary TB is most likely to be associated with AFB sputum positivity:

A)     Primary complex

B)      Fifronodular

C)      Cavitary

D)     Pleural effusion

3. Following antiTB drug is associated with major visual side effects:

A)     INH

B)      Rifampicin

C)      Ethambutol

D)     Pyrazinamide

4. Empyema necessitans is:

A)     Common manifestation of post primary TB:

B)      Extension of empyema to the thoracic cage

C)      Empyema associated with pneumonia

D)     Part of Primary complex

5. Fibro-cavitary lung lesion on x-ray is a feature of:

A)     Primary TB

B)      Post primary TB

C)      Metastatic lung disease

D)     Lung abscess

6. Miliary TB on CT scan has:

A)     Peribronchial distribution of lesions

B)      Lesions randomly distributed measuring 1-2 mm

C)      Small granulomas with satellite lesions

D)     Small nodules with caseation

7. Gohn’s focus is usually:

A)     Subpleural

B)      Peribronchial

C)      Apical

D)     In lyphnode

8. Mantoux  test :

A)     Is carried out by intradermal inoculation of live attenuated bacilli.

B)      Positivity indicates prior exposure of the individual to M. Tuberculosis.

C)      Positivity indicates good immunity against TB

D)     Is a measure of individuals humoral immunity

9. Anti TB drugs with maximum CNS penetration are:

A)     INH and Rifampicin

B)      INH and Streptomicin

C)      INH and Ethambutol

D)     INH and Pyrazinamide

10. When TB is associated with AIDS:

A)     Mantaox reading is affected

B)      CSF parameters are affected

C)      First line management is affected

D)     TB is caused by atypical mycobacteria

Answers and discussions:

Answer: 1-A

Rifampicin is a bacteriocidal antiTB drug that kills both multiplying and dormant bacteria hence it sterilizes the tissue. INH is effective against multiplying bacilli. Ethambutol in low dose is bacteriostatic and in high dosages, is bacteriocidal. Pirazinamide is a mild bacteriocidal drug but has a property of killing bacilli in acidic environment such as, in macrophages and areas of acute inflammation. It can cross blood brain barrier in good concentration.

Answer: 2-C

Cavities represent necrosis of tissue resulting in communication of the infected material with the airways. The bacteria are thus discharged in the bronchial tree from where they can be coughed out with sputum. The infected material can cause tubercular bronchopneumonia in host by spread to other parts of lungs or gastro-intestinal tuberculosis by means of swallowed secretions. The risk of spread to other individual is very high with cavitary tuberculosis.

Answer: 3-C

Hepatotoxicity is the most common side effect of antiTB treatment. INH, rifampicin and  pyrazinamide ate hepatotoxic. INH may cause sensory neuropathy. Rifampicin may cause itching in first two weeks and may cause thrombocytopenia. Ethambutol can cause retrobulbar neuritis which, in some cases, may be irreversible.

Answer: 4-B

Empyema necessitance is an uncommon manifestation of TB when TB empyema extends to the thoracic cage.

Answer: 5-B

Primary complex is a small area of consolidation in subpleural parenchyma. Post primary TB occurs in immunocompetent hosts and causes caseating granulomas. The caseous material gets drained out through bronchi resulting in small cavities surrounded by fibrosis. Lung abscess is a thick walled cavity on X-ray.

Answer: 6-B

Miliary TB is caused by hematogenous spread of TB bacilli and has characteristic appearance on CT scan of chest with randomly distributed lesions measuring 1-2 mm.

Answer: 7-A

Answer: 8-B

Mantoux test is carried out by intradernmal injection of purified protein derivative extracted from tubercular bacilli culture. It is a sterile solution and does not contain live bacteria. Positive mantoux test indicates prior exposure to TB. It is a measure of cell mediated immunity and not of humoral immunity. Positive test does not necessarily mean good immunity.

Answer: 9-D

INH and pyrazinamide have 100% CNS penetration and are important in treatment of TB meningitis.

Answer: 10- A

In an immunodeficient person such as, a case of AIDS, cell mediated immunity is deficient. Mantaox test detects cell mediated response of an individual to tuberculin antigen. Hence the test will show lower induration or less positivity. Rest of the parameters are not affected.

Preventive and social medicine MCQs for AIPGMEE, MCCEE, FMGE, JIPMER

Want to make best use of you time?
Want to prepare anywhere? anytime?
Want to achieve the best result in shortest time?
Ace medical MCQs is an e book you can access on your smart phone and your tablet. It is a collection of MCQs in all medical subjects prepared by a group of experts in the field.

1. Intervention that is directed to arrest disease progress and prevent complications is:                

A )     Primordial prevention

B)      Primary prevention

C)      Secondary prevention

D)     Tertiary prevention

2. Screening mammography is an example of:

A)     Primordial prevention

B)      Primary prevention

C)      Secondary prevention

D)     Tertiary prevention

3. Which is the most cost effective intervention of disease prevention?                                                

A)     Environmental modification

B)      Nutritional intervention

C)      Vaccination

D)     Health education

4. Improving sanitation in a village is:                                      

A)     Primary prevention

B)      Primordial prevention

C)      Secondary prevention

D)     Not a preventive measure

5. Following is an example of a person’s handicap.                                                                                          

A)     Accidental injury to right upper limb.

B)      Inability to write due to the injury

C)      Permanent deformity caused by the injury

D)     Inability to find a job because of disability

6. An epidemic is defined as occurrence of a disease more than:                                                                             

A)     Is normally expected at the same time and place.

B)      Its occurrence in similar geographical areas

C)      The international occurrence rate

D)      The national occurrence rate

7. 200 persons developed gastroenteritis after consuming food at a party. Affected individuals developed symptoms within 6-8hours after intake of food, and recovery from the symptoms was observed within 24 hours of treatment. This description matches:                                                     

A)     Point source (single exposure) epidemic

B)      Multiple exposure epidemic

C)      Slow epidemic

D)     Propagated epidemic

8. What is not true about case control studies?

A)     The disease under study has happened before the onset of study

B)      The study is retrospective in nature

C)      The study can be used to determine incidence of a disease

D)     It is suitable to investigate risk factors of chronic diseases

9. Advantages of case control studies are all, EXCEPT:

A)     Compared to cohort studies they are rapid and inexpensive

B)      Require comparatively few subjects

C)      Risk factors of chronic diseases can be identified

D)     Suitable for evaluation of therapy

10. Lung cancer occurred in 50 people among 5000 smokers and 2 persons out of 2000 non-smokers. The relative risk of developing carcinoma lung in smokers is:

A)     5/2

B)      10

C)      100

D)     5

Answers and Discussion:

Ans: 1- C

Primordial prevention is to modify environment or economic and social or cultural factors to minimize factors negatively affecting health. Improving sanitation and promoting healthy lifestyle in children are examples of primordial prevention. Primary prevention is to reduce risk of specific disease by intervention to prevent its onset. Vaccination and smoking cessation are primary prevention. 

Secondary prevention deals with early diagnosis and treatment of diseases. Hence, an intervention that arrests disease progress and prevents complications is secondary prevention. Tertiary prevention includes interventions undertaken after treatment of a disease, to improve function and longevity. Rehabilitation is tertiary prevention.

Ans: 2- C

Screening mammography is used for early diagnosis of breast cancer, hence it is secondary prevention.

Ans: 3- D

Health education can be imparted by variety of inexpensive measures such as mass media and education in schools. Environmental modification, nutritional intervention and vaccination require ample resources and efforts.

Ans: 4- B

Improvement of sanitation improves general wellbeing of the population and is likely to prevent several diseases. Hence it is an example of primordial prevention.

Ans: 5-D

Inability to write due to injury is impairment. Permanent deformity is a disability. Inability to find a job due to disability is handicap.

Ans: 6-A

Ans: 7- A

When the exposure occurs from a single source at one particular time and all the affected individuals develop symptoms within one incubation period, the epidemic is known as single source epidemic.

Ans: 8- C 

Case control study is a retrospective study where both the exposure and the disease have occurred before the study. To study association between thiazide diuretic and new onset diabetes, people with diabetes and matched non-diabetic control are selected and their exposure to thiazide is plotted on 2x2 table. It is possible to calculate relative risk, attributable risk, and odds ratio; but it is not possible to know incidence of a disease because of the study design.

Ans: 9-D

Case control studies have no attrition or case dropout, since it is a retrospective study. It requires relatively few subjects and information about single risk factor can be easily obtained. It is not suitable for evaluation of a therapy, as evaluation of a therapy requires prospective study.

Ans: 10- B

Relative risk = Incidence of disease among exposed / Incidence of disease among non- exposed

                        = 50 per 5000 / 20 per 2000 = 10 per 1000 / 1 per 1000 =10

Skin MCQs for MCCEE, MCCQE



Want to make best use of you time?
Want to prepare anywhere? anytime?
Want to achieve the best result in shortest time?
Ace medical MCQs is an e book you can access on your smart phone and your tablet. It is a collection of MCQs in all medical subjects prepared by a group of experts in the field.

1. Treatment of the rash seen in a newborn includes:

       A)Antibiotic ointment

       B)Antifungal ointment

       C)Reassurance the mother

               D)Topical steroids

Ans: C  

This is heat rash in a newborn. It occurs due to blockage of sweat ducts when the ambient temperature is high or the baby is kept covered. The rash is benign and self limiting, and no treatment is indicated. Concerned mother should be reassured.

       

2.

The rash in the picture is pathognomonic of:

               A)Typhoid fever

               B)Rubella

               C)Deep vein thrombosis

               D)Dengue recovery rash *

Ans: D

Dengue recovery rash is seen in secondary dengue in its recovery phase. There is generalized erythema on all four extremities. The rash shows round areas of clearing before it subsides. This pattern is pathognomonic of dengue recovery rash. It heralds recovery.

3. Which of the following skin condition is contagious?                                                                  

A)     Psoriasis

B)      Rosacea

C)      Pityriasis rosea

D)     Tinea pedis

Ans: D

Psoriasis is an immune mediated disease and is non infectious. Rosacea is a skin condition precipitated by exposure to sun light, ambient temperature changes, emotional stress etc. The exact cause is not known. Pityriasis rosea is a self limiting skin condition of yet unknown etiology. It gives lifelong immunity, thus indicating a viral etiology but it is not known to be contagious. Tinea pedis is highly contagious infection, especially in athletes.

4. Following skin cancer is not predisposed by excessive sun exposure:                                                 

A)     Kaposi Sarcoma

B)      Basal cell carcinoma

C)      Squamous cell carcinoma

D)     Melanoma

Ans: A

Kaposi sarcoma is associated with Acquired immunodeficiency disease. Skin may be involved but the occurrence is not related to sun light exposure.

 

VISIT:
http://www.medicalmcqcenter.com

FOR FREE ORIGINAL MCQS ON VARIOUS  MEDICAL SUBJECTS

Endocrinology MCQs for MCCEE, AIPGMEE, PGIEE, JIPMER, FMGE, State PG entrance,

Want to make best use of you time?
Want to prepare anywhere? anytime?
Want to achieve the best result in shortest time?
Ace medical MCQs is an e book you can access on your smart phone and your tablet. It is a collection of MCQs in all medical subjects prepared by a group of experts in the field.

. Drug effectively used in treatment of Cushing’s syndrome is:                                                                

A)     Insulin

B)      Prednisolone

C)      Ketoconazole

D)     High dose multivitamin

Ans: C

Ketoconazole inhibits steroidogenesis and is used for medical treatment of cushing’s syndrome.

2. Corticosteroid hormones are responsible for all of the following functions, EXCEPT:                   

A)     Mobilization of glucose from liver

B)      Control of total body water

C)      Inhibition of lymphocyte proliferation

D)     Increase in muscle mass

Ans: D

Corticosteroids have catabolic effect on protein metabolism hence they do not increase muscle mass unlike anabolic steroids.

3. Addison’s disease is associated with serum levels of:                                                                                

A)     Elevated potassium and low sodium

B)      Elevated Sodium and low potassium

C)      Elevated sodium and potassium

D)     Decreased sodium and potassium

Ans: A

Addison’s disease is name given to primary adrenal insufficiency. There is deficiency of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid (aldestrerone) hormones. Potassium excretion from kidney is impaired, due to low aldosterone. Low serum sodium is due to low aldosterone and high corticotropin releasing hormone causing increase in ADH (anti diuretic hormone).

4. Adrenal cortex does not produce:                                                                                                                      

A)     Glucocorticoid hormone

B)      Adreno corticotropic hormone

C)      Androgen

D)     Aldosterone

Ans: B

5. Nelson syndrome is:                                                                                                                                               

A)     ACTH producing tumour in pituitary

B)      Ectopic ACTH producing tumour

C)      Unilateral adrenal hyperplasia

D)     Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

Ans: A

Nelson syndrome is rapid enlargement of pituitary gland tumour after removal of both adrenal glands that is performed in order to treat hyperadrenalism.

6. Hormone responsible for stimulating appetite is:                                                                                        

A)     Ghrelin

B)      Obestatin

C)      Motilin

D)     Leptin

Ans: A

Ghrelin is appetite stimulating peptide the levels of which increases before a meal and decreases after a meal. Leptin and obstetin suppress appetite. Motilin does not affect appetite.

7. Choose a statement that is not true about Gigantism.

A)     In most cases it is because of pituitary tumour

B)      It is diagnosed by measurement of fasting growth hormone level

C)      It occurs only if high growth hormone is present before fusion of bone epiphysis

D)     Growth hormone is inhibited by increase in blood glucose.

Ans: B

Growth hormone is secreted by pituitary in pulses hence single point measurement is not reliable.

8. Commonest hormonal disturbance of pituitary gland is, increased secretion of:

A)     Prolactin

B)      Growth hormone

C)      Antidiuretic hormone

D)     Thyroid secreting hormone

Ans: A

9. Choose an option that is not a cause of gynecomastia:

A)     Cirrhosis of liver

B)      Spirinolactone treatment

C)      Tamoxifane treatment

D)     Use of anabolic steroid

Ans: C

Gynecomastia is due to increase in ratio of estrogen and teastoaterone in male subjects. Estrogen breakdown is impaired in cirrhosis if liver. Spironolactone treatment is often used in patients of cirrhosis of liver. Spironolactone inhibits production of androgens and is a potent androgen antagonist. Excess testosterone in anabolic streroids gets converted to estrogen causing gynecomastia. Tamoxifane blocks effect of estrogen on breast tissue, hence it is used in treatment of gynecomastia.

10. Causes of virilisation of a female foetus are all EXCEPT:                                                                          

A)     21 hydroxylase deficiency

B)      17 hydroxylase deficiency

C)      11  bera hydroxylase deficiency

D)     3 beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency

Ans: B

17 hydroxylase deficiency causes defect in steroid hormone synthesis in foetus leading to deficiency of glucocorticoid and sex steroids and increased production of mineralocorticoids. It manifests as inadequate virilisation of male foetus, causing ambiguous genitalia. It causes partial or no secondary sexual development in affected female. Hypertension and hypokalemia result due to high mineralocorticoid activity later in life. (To remember, only nos. 1,2,3  cause virilisation as in11, 21 and 3)

Liver MCQs for MCCEE, AIPGMEE, PGIEE, JIPMER, FMGE, State PG entrance,

Want to make best use of you time?

Want to prepare anywhere? anytime?
Want to achieve the best result in shortest time?
Ace medical MCQs is an e book you can access on your smart phone and your tablet. It is a collection of MCQs in all medical subjects prepared by a group of experts in the field.

1. Which of the following is least likely to cause cirrhosis of liver?                                                              

A)     Biliary atresia

B)      Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis

C)      Hepatitis E

D)     Hepatitis C

Ans: C

Hepatitis E infection is self limiting in most cases. It may become chronic in presence of immunodeficiency and rarely leads to cirrhosis of liver.

2. In a case of portal hypertension; porto-systemic shunts develop at all of the following sites EXCEPT:                                                                                                                                                                  

A)     Anal canal

B)      Retroperitoneal space

C)      Anterior abdominal wall

D)     Spleen

Ans: D

Spleen vein drains into the portal vein. Spleen does not have systemic venous drainage, hence there is no porto systemic shunt in the spleen.

3. Which drug is useful in lowering blood pressure in portal system?                                                       

A)     Sodium nitroprusside

B)      Propranolol

C)      Amlodepin

D)     Diltiazam

Ans: B

4. Portal hypertension presenting with intractable ascitis and hepatomegaly is likely to be due to:                                                                                                                                                                                            

A)     Portal vein thrombosis

B)      Budd-chiari syndrome

C)      Alcoholic cirrhosis

D)     Biliary cirrhosis

Ans: B

Occlusion of hepatic vein (Budd- Chiari syndrome) produces abdominal pain, hepatomegaly and ascitis. Portal vein thrombosis causes splenomegaly and porto-systemic shunt. In cirrhosis, the liver is usually shrunken and there is no hepatomegaly.

5. Commonest cause of portal hypertension is:                                                                                                

A)     Cirrhosis of liver

B)      Portal vein thrombosis

C)      Budd chiari syndrome

D)     Spenomegaly

Ans: A

6. In portal hypertension, dilated periumbilical collateral veins are known as:                                      

A)     Asterixix

B)      Caput medusa

C)      Migrating thrombophebitis

D)     Spider angiomata

Ans: B

Asterixix is the flapping tremors of hepatic encephalopathy. Migrating thromboplebitis is non metaststic manifestation of malignancy such as carcimoma of pancreas. Spider angiomata are seen as small lesions with central arterioles, these are due to high estrogen level in cirrhosis of liver.

7. All of the following are features of cirrhosis of liver EXCEPT:                                                                   

A)     Erythema nodosum

B)      Asterixix

C)      Depuytren’s contracture

D)     Gynecomastia

Ans: A

Erythema nodosum is inflammation of fat cells due to immunologic response to infections such as streptococcus, tuberculosis, mycoplasma pneumonia etc. It is not a manifestation of liver cell failure.

8.Late manifestations of cirrhosis of liver include all, EXCEPT:

A)     Portal hypertension

B)      Coagulation disorders

C)      Fatty liver

D)     Hepatorenal syndrome

Ans: C

Fatty liver is early manifestation of liver involvement in alcoholism. It is reversible if alcohol is discontinued. Other options are late manifestations.

9. Commonest type liver cancer is:

A)     Hepatoblastoma

B)      Hepato cellular carcinoma

C)      Hepatic adenoma

D)     Cholangiocarcinoma

Ans: B

Hepatoblastoma is a rare hepatic tumour occurring in children. Cholangiocarcinoma has frequency of 1-2 for 10 cases of hepatocellular carcinoma. Hepatic adenoma is benign tumour.

10.Commonest cause of hepatitis C infection is:

A)     Intravenous recreational drug use

B)      Blood transfusion

C)      Vertical transmission from mother to foetus

D)     Accidental needle stick injury

Ans: A

Infected needle use by intravenous drug users is the commonest cause of transmission of hepatitis C. Blood is tested for Hepatitis C before transfusion, hence incidence of transfusion induced hepatitis C has come down.